Satan's Great Deception

For more than 12 years I have been trying to explain to God's people that the name "Lucifer" belongs to Jesus Christ and should never ever have been applied to Satan! I have given sermons and written articles on this subject. While some people have immediately recognized the truth of what I have explained in this regard, others have vociferously opposed my explanations.

For example: when about five years ago I explained this matter to a minister who was at that time prominent in one of the church of God organizations, he responded by telling me that I was correct and that he would never again make the mistake of saying that Satan had ever been called "Lucifer". Another person, however, took strong exception to what I had written and he published what he intended to be a rebuttal of my article on the internet, in which he strongly defended Satan's claim to at one time having had the name "Lucifer". Also, some time ago I was discussing this topic with a well-known minister in another of the church of God organizations. He disagreed with me and said words to this effect:

"When Frank Nelte says a Hebrew word has meaning 'X' and when the Jewish Soncino Commentary says the word means something else, then I will believe Soncino."

It's a pity that this minister gave the wrong answer. Had he said: "... then I will believe Frank Nelte", it would have been an equally wrong answer! The way he had phrased his statement meant that BOTH OPTIONS would lead to wrong answers. He started out from a wrong premise ... a premise that you have to choose to believe one of two people ... either you believe me or you have to believe the man who wrote that section of the Soncino Commentary.

But we are not supposed to believe ANY MAN! We are only supposed to believe THE FACTS! It is immaterial as to who presents those facts.

I have never expected people to believe me simply "because I say so"! On this topic of "Lucifer" I have clearly presented THE FACTS, and the facts speak for themselves. The choice is simply one of deciding whether to acknowledge the facts that I present, or whether to reject them. It's as simple as that.

When I offered to write up the facts about this topic, the last-mentioned minister told me: "Fine, BUT KEEP IT SHORT", meaning that it should be no longer than a page or two. I didn't tell him: "Okay, but when you in future give sermons, just keep them short, down to 4 or 5 minutes in length, the time it takes to read one or two pages". It is rather unfair to limit the explanation of numerous different facts to a page or two ... just as unfair as it would be to limit the length of sermons to 4 or 5 minutes. But anyway, I've kept this article relatively short, about 14 pages or so.

I KNOW THAT WHAT I AM EXPLAINING ABOUT THE NAME "LUCIFER" IS CORRECT! I DON'T APOLOGIZE FOR THAT! THE FACTS ARE BEYOND DISPUTE! IT DOESN'T MATTER WHETHER "AUTHORITIES" AGREE OR DISAGREE WITH THESE FACTS!

And you can evaluate the facts in this article for yourself.

WHAT WE ARE TOLD ABOUT SATAN

The Apostle Paul tells us:

"And no marvel; FOR SATAN HIMSELF IS TRANSFORMED INTO AN ANGEL OF LIGHT." (2 Corinthians 11:14)

The verb here rendered as "is transformed into" is the present tense, middle voice and indicative mood of the Greek verb "metaschematizo". This verb means:

- "meta" = with, after, among, etc.

- "schema" = the habitus, as comprising everything in a person which strikes the senses (i.e. external form).

In English grammar we only have two voices: the active voice and the passive voice. In Greek there is a third voice known as "THE MIDDLE VOICE". This middle voice is used to express the subject performing an action upon himself or for his own benefit. The middle voice makes it a reflexive verb. The middle voice in Greek is basically the equivalent of using a Hebrew verb with the hithpael stem.

In line with this grammatical information, 2 Corinthians 11:14 is correctly translated as follows in the following translations:

ASV = "... even Satan FASHIONS HIMSELF into an angel of light"

NIV = "for Satan HIMSELF MASQUERADES as an angel of light"

RSV = "for even Satan DISGUISES HIMSELF as an angel of light"

DARBY = "for Satan himself TRANSFORMS HIMSELF into an angel ..."

YOUNG = "even the Adversary DOTH TRANSFORM HIMSELF into a messenger of light"

GREEN'S LITERAL TRANSLATION = "DID not Satan MARVELLOUSLY TRANSFORM HIMSELF into ..."

The use of the middle voice in the Greek verb makes clear that this is an action Satan HIMSELF performs! All of these translations recognize this fact. The KJV use of the passive voice in this verse (i.e. "is transformed") is not correct. The verse tells us something that Satan himself is actively doing.

The Greek words for "angel of light" are "aggelos" and "phos". "Aggelos" means: a messenger or an envoy. "Phos" means: light and anything giving off light.

Thus in 2 Corinthians 11:14 Paul tells us that Satan disguises HIMSELF and masquerades as a messenger or envoy that brings light and gives off light, when in fact HE DOES NOTHING OF THE KIND! And there is no indication anywhere in the Bible that he has EVER done anything remotely resembling being "A BRINGER OF LIGHT"!

This verse also tells us that Satan WANTS human beings to think of him as someone who brings light! Now there is no "Christian" church on earth that claims that Satan is TODAY STILL A BRINGER OF LIGHT AND TRUTH! But virtually every single one of them (and I am not aware of any exceptions) will state that Satan "USED TO BE" a bringer of light, by ascribing to him the name "Lucifer".

Now let's look at another Scripture.

"And the great dragon was cast out, that old serpent, called the Devil, and Satan, WHICH DECEIVES THE WHOLE WORLD: he was cast out into the earth ..." (Revelation 12:9)

The Greek word translated "whole" is the adjective "holos", meaning: all, whole. The Greek word translated "world" is the noun "oikoumene", which refers to the inhabited earth. So this verse tells us that Satan has deceived all people in every inhabited area of this earth.

While we can say that Satan has deceived humanity in numerous ways on many different fronts, what is the actual context of this phrase? The context of this phrase is clearly SATAN'S IDENTITY! He is IDENTIFIED in this sentence as a great dragon and as that old serpent and he is given the names Devil (meaning: accuser, slanderer) and Satan (meaning: adversary, opponent).

But he has DECEIVED people into believing something else, and towards that end he has "disguised" himself (as per 2 Corinthians 11:14). People have not seen through his "masquerade" and so they are deceived and think that he "used to be" a bringer of light.

And the chances are that you and I were ALSO deceived by Satan! "The whole world" does not mean everybody but you and me; it includes us. I know that I was deceived for many years (and probably still am on various other issues); and I seriously doubt that there is anyone alive today who, throughout the course of his life, has not been deceived by Satan in many different ways. Satan is not called "the god of this world" (Greek is 'age') without good reason in 2 Corinthians 4:4. Satan, the father of all lies and all deception (John 8:44), has been deceiving humanity for almost 6000 years. Even after God has opened our minds to His truth, it is still a long and arduous task to unravel the countless deceptions we have been subjected to, and to see them for what they really are. Mr. Armstrong repeatedly told us that it is far more difficult to unlearn error than it is to learn something correctly the first time around. And he was right!

We are no different from other people in this world. We too are reluctant to change things we have always believed to be right and true; we too are sceptical of "new evidence" and "new understanding" that is presented to us; we too can fall prey to trying to argue away facts for which we have no answers. For us to NOT acknowledge that we too are subject to all these things would amount to claiming that "we are better than other men", because we (supposedly) have the kind of character that will always accept and acknowledge everything that is right and true. But we are NOT really better than other people in this regard! We too have a real struggle accepting facts that contradict our ideas and opinions. To not face this fact is to deceive ourselves.

Now let's look at something else.

WHAT WE ARE TOLD ABOUT JESUS CHRIST

In Revelation chapter 22 Jesus Christ identified Himself very clearly. He said:

"I, Jesus have sent my angel to testify unto you these things in the churches. I AM the root and the offspring of David, and THE BRIGHT AND MORNING STAR." (Revelation 22:16)

The Greek words for "morning star" here are "orthrinos aster". And they are CORRECTLY rendered as "morning star".

Now note!

I have checked about 20 different translations, including the following: KJV, ASV, NAS, NIV, RSV, NRSV, KJV21, MKJV, DARBY, YOUNG'S, GREEN'S LITERAL, 3 GERMAN TRANSLATIONS, 3 DUTCH TRANSLATIONS, 1 AFRIKAANS TRANSLATION, etc. ... and they have ALL translated "aster orthrinos" CORRECTLY as "morning star".

This means that all these translators know that the Greek for "star" is "aster". They also all know that "morning star" here refers to Jesus Christ! It is too plain for anyone to miss.

Now let's look at another verse in the Book of Revelation.

"And I will give him THE MORNING STAR." (Revelation 2:28)

The Greek words for "morning star" here are "proinos aster" (the full Greek phrase is "astera ton proinon"). This too is correctly translated into English as "morning star". This expression "morning star" is also a reference to Jesus Christ, and all these translations have translated this expression CORRECTLY into English (and German, etc.).

So note carefully:

At least 20 different translations (including some into languages other than English) have CORRECTLY recognized that "orthrinos aster" and "proinos aster" mean "MORNING STAR"! The meaning of the Greek word for "star" is not in any way in dispute.

NOW LET'S EXAMINE ANOTHER VERSE!

"We also have a more sure word of prophecy; whereunto you do well that you take heed, as unto a light that shines in a dark place, until the day dawn, AND THE DAY STAR ARISE IN YOUR HEARTS" (2 Peter 1:19)

The following translations render the relevant expression in this verse as "DAY STAR": KJV, ASV, GREEN'S LITERAL, 1995 Revised WEBSTER, 1833 WEBSTER.

The following translations render the relevant expression in this verse as "MORNING STAR": NAS, NIV, RSV, NRSV, DARBY, YOUNG'S, 3 GERMAN TRANSLATIONS, 3 DUTCH TRANSLATIONS, 1 AFRIKAANS TRANSLATION.

If we took the attitude of saying: "all these scholars surely can't be wrong", THEN we would have to conclude that in the Greek text of 2 Peter 1:19 there must be an expression that means either "DAY STAR" or "MORNING STAR".

BUT NOTHING COULD BE FURTHER FROM THE TRUTH!!

The Greek text of 2.Peter 1:19 does not contain any word that means "STAR" or "DAY" or "MORNING"! And all of the translators know this fact very well! It is beyond dispute that there is no word for "star" in this verse.

So we do not have a single honest and correct English (or German or Dutch or Afrikaans) translation of 2 Peter 1:19!

WHY HAS EVERY TRANSLATION INTO ENGLISH (or DUTCH and GERMAN and AFRIKAANS) DEALT DISHONESTLY WITH THIS VERSE?

Here are the facts.

Where the English translations give us the TWO words "day star" (or "morning star"), the Greek text actually only contains ONE word. That word is "PHOSPHOROS". And ALL of these translations decided to render the Greek word "phosphoros" into English as "day star" or as "morning star" ... and that in spite of clearly understanding that the Greek word for "star" is "aster".

Here is what has happened:

1) ALL translators understand that the Greek word "phosphoros" is used in 2 Peter 1:19 to refer to Jesus Christ.

2) They also ALL understand that "orthrinos aster" and "proinos aster" in the Book of Revelation ALSO refer to Jesus Christ.

3) Because of their own religious views and biases they were EMBARRASSED to correctly translate the Greek word "phosphoros".

4) THEREFORE instead of actually translating the word "phosphoros" they ALL chose to REPLACE this word with A DIFFERENT TITLE FOR JESUS CHRIST! Instead of translating "phosphoros" into English, they REPLACED this word with the title for Jesus Christ found in Revelation 22:16. They made no attempt to actually translate "phosphoros".

5) In this way they could soothe their guilty consciences! While they had carefully avoided translating the title "phosphoros", they had nevertheless still made clear that this Scripture is speaking about Jesus Christ, by simply inserting a title for Jesus Christ that is found in a different Scripture (i.e. Revelation 22:16).

6) The result is that NO READER OF ANY ENGLISH TRANSLATION OF THE BIBLE HAS ACCESS TO THE REAL MEANING OF 2 PETER 1:19!

7) 2 Peter 1:19 is the only place in the N.T. where the Greek word "phosphoros" is used; and this is completely hidden in all English versions.

WHAT WAS THAT ABOUT SATAN "DECEIVING THE WHOLE WORLD"??

However, there actually IS one CORRECT translation of 2 Peter 1:19. But that is unfortunately not into the English language. Let's notice this.

THE ONLY CORRECT TRANSLATION OF 2 PETER 1:19

The New Testament Scriptures were written in the Greek language. They were completed before the end of the first century A.D.. The first translation of the whole New Testament into another language that was ever made was the translation into Latin. Numerous Latin translations were made, and they were later edited and corrected by the Catholic scholar Jerome. Jerome lived from about 345 A.D. until about 419 A.D.. Jerome is the author of the Latin Vulgate version of the Bible, which he completed in about 405 A.D..

So note carefully!

The very first translation of the Greek N.T. Scriptures was made by Jerome into the Latin language. And in this very first translation 2 Peter 1:19 was translated PERFECTLY CORRECTLY INTO LATIN!

So the question is:

WHY did Jerome translate 2 Peter 1:19 perfectly correctly into Latin, when all subsequent translators into other languages have been embarrassed to translate this verse correctly into their own languages?

The answer is quite simple:

It is only due to religious traditions and beliefs that developed AFTER the time of Jerome that have made translators embarrassed to translate 2 Peter 1:19 correctly. Jerome didn't realize that 2 Peter 1:19 would present a conflict of interests, because HIS TRANSLATION (i.e. the Latin Vulgate) became THE CAUSE for a tradition about Satan's existence before the creation of man.

Now first let's notice Jerome's translation of 2 Peter 1:19. Here it is:

"... et LUCIFER oriatur in cordibus vestris" (2 Peter 1:19, Vulgate)

The Latin noun "lucifer" is made of the two words:

- lux = a noun meaning "light"

- fero = a verb meaning "to carry"

The Greek noun "phosphoros" is made of the two words:

- phos = a noun meaning "light"

- phero = a verb meaning "to carry"

So Jerome's translation of the Greek word "phosphoros" into the Latin word "lucifer" is ABSOLUTELY 100% PERFECTLY CORRECT! There is no question that IF you are going to speak Latin, then in 2 Peter 1:19 Jesus Christ is clearly called "LUCIFER"! There is simply no way around this conclusion. It is inescapable.

So let's summarize this information:

1) Jerome knew that 2 Peter 1:19 is speaking about Jesus Christ.

2) Jerome translated the Greek "phosphoros" perfectly correctly into the Latin as "lucifer".

3) So Jerome KNEW that the New Testament clearly calls Jesus Christ "LUCIFER" (if you happen to be speaking Latin).

Understand this!

There is absolutely no difficulty at all in establishing that 2 Peter 1:19 uses the name "LUCIFER" as a title for Jesus Christ. And Jerome knew this. However, in spite of this Jerome used the word "Lucifer" TWICE more in his Latin Vulgate translation of the Bible. He also used the word "Lucifer" twice in the Old Testament. The occurrence in Job 11:17 we can ignore in this particular discussion. But let's look at the other place where Jerome used the Latin word "lucifer".

Notice!

"quomodo cecidisti de caelo LUCIFER qui mane oriebaris corruisti in terram qui vulnerabas gentes." (Isaiah 14:12, Vulgate)

This section of Isaiah chapter 14 is very clearly speaking about SATAN! And in the Hebrew text of Isaiah 14:12 the noun "HEYLEL" is used. This noun "heylel" is used only this once in the entire Old Testament, and Jerome decided to translate it into Latin as "LUCIFER".

So note the following!

1) In spite of ALREADY knowing with certainty that 2 Peter 1:19 very clearly refers to Jesus Christ as "Lucifer", because the translation of the Greek word "phosphoros" into Latin is simply beyond question, Jerome nevertheless decided to translate the somewhat ambiguous Hebrew noun "heylel", which is used quite clearly to refer to Satan, also as "Lucifer".

2) WHY did Jerome do that ... use a name that clearly refers to Jesus Christ in 2 Peter 1:19 to translate the far-from-clear Hebrew noun "heylel"? WHY did Jerome use the same Latin word to in one place refer to Christ and in another place to refer to Satan? Did Jerome think of this himself, or did he follow a precedent that had already been set before his time? And exactly WHO was Jerome working for and whose image was he enhancing ... Jesus Christ's or Satan's?

Understand this!

The name "Lucifer" has NOT come to us from the Hebrew Old Testament. "Lucifer" is a Latin word, not a Hebrew word. IF Jerome had never translated the whole Bible into Latin, then we today would NEVER EVER have heard of the name "Lucifer". The Latin Vulgate translation of the Bible is THE ONLY REASON for the existence of the name "Lucifer". Without the prior existence of the Latin Vulgate, NONE of the translations into English (and German and Dutch, etc.) would EVER have decided to translate "phosphoros" in 2 Peter 1:19 as "day star" or as "morning star". Nor would any of those translations have translated Isaiah 14:12 into English as "Lucifer". This is because the word "Lucifer" is never found in either the Hebrew Old Testament or in the Greek New Testament; the word "Lucifer" only came into existence (in Christian religious usage) with the birth of the Latin Vulgate translation of the Scriptures.

In plain English:

THE NAME "LUCIFER" WAS COINED BY THEOLOGIANS OF THE ROMAN CATHOLIC CHURCH! AND THEY COINED THIS WORD AS A NAME FOR SATAN!

So now back to Jerome. Did he himself think of translating the Hebrew word "heylel" into Latin as "Lucifer", or did he follow a precedent that had been set before his own time?

The way I have phrased this question already implies that the answer is found before Jerome's time. The answer is in fact found in the Greek language Septuagint translation of the Old Testament Hebrew Scriptures. This translation is generally known as "LXX".

THE LXX TRANSLATION OF ISAIAH 14:12

The LXX is anything but a faithful translation of the Hebrew Scriptures into Greek. It is in fact an extremely corrupt and slipshod translation with countless errors and inaccuracies.

It is claimed that this translation was made in the second century B.C., long before any part of the New Testament was written. However, today there is no evidence available for any existence of the LXX prior to the third century A.D. ... more than 400 years AFTER this translation was supposedly made.

[Comment: I am speaking about the LXX as a COMPLETE copy of the entire Old Testament. I am not speaking about evidence of one book of the O.T. here and perhaps another book of the O.T. over there having been translated into Greek at a B.C. date.]

The only available evidence for the existence of the LXX is based on Origen's "Hexapla", a six-column harmony of various Greek translations of the Hebrew Scriptures. Origen lived from about 185 A.D. to about 254 A.D., more than 100 years before Jerome. One of the columns in Origen's Hexapla is supposed to represent the original LXX. The problem is that a complete copy of Origen's Hexapla isn't available today either ... it has only survived in fragmentary form.

Anyway, it is well-known that today's version of the LXX can be clearly led back to the Catholic scholar Origen. NONE of Origen's source documents (for his LXX column) have survived for examination and evaluation. We have no way to evaluate how he edited the text in order to harmonize conflicting manuscripts.

One of the most notable features about Origen's personal life is that he castrated himself in early adulthood, supposedly in order to serve "his god" more fervently. This has been recorded by Eusebius of Caesarea. Origen is also regarded as the father of "the allegorical method of scriptural interpretation". He was a Platonist who endeavoured to combine GREEK PHILOSOPHY and the Christian religion. Origen also believed in the pre-existence of the soul. [This information is readily available in various encyclopedias, e.g. Microsoft Encarta Computer Edition, etc.]

Anyway, here is the LXX text of Isaiah 14:12, which can be traced back to Origen (whether it existed before his time or not):

"pos exepesen EK TOU OURANOU HO EOSPHOROS ho proi anatellon sunetribe eis ten ho apostellon pros panta ta ethne." (Isaiah 14:12, LXX text)

So we have the following phrases in Isaiah 14:12:

HEBREW : ... mishamayim HEYLEL

LXX : ... ek tou ouranou HO EOSPHOROS

VULGATE : ... de caelo LUCIFER

KJV : ... from heaven O LUCIFER

[The word "eosphoros" in the LXX is an older variant form of the word "phosphoros".]

So now we have the answer to our question. In his Latin Vulgate translation Jerome correctly translated the Greek "phosphoros" in 2 Peter 1:19 into Latin as "Lucifer". But in Isaiah 14:12 Jerome did NOT attempt to translate the Hebrew word "heylel" into Latin. Instead Jerome simply followed the precedent Origen had set in his LXX version ... Jerome simply translated the GREEK "eosphoros" from the LXX correctly into Latin as "Lucifer". Jerome accepted that the LXX translation of the Hebrew "heylel" was correct, which it was not!

And that is how the word "Lucifer" came to be used twice in the Latin Vulgate (besides also in Job 11:17):

1) It is a correct translation of the Greek text in 2 Peter 1:19.

2) In Isaiah 14:12 the word "Lucifer" is NOT based on the Hebrew text of this verse, but on the Greek text of Origen's LXX. And here the word "Lucifer" IS NOT A CORRECT TRANSLATION of the original Hebrew word.

Before we examine the Hebrew word "heylel", note the following:

It is due totally to the influence of the Catholic weirdo Origen (and it is documented that many of his contemporaries considered him to be a weirdo!) that Satan was given the name "Lucifer". It was the guy who castrated himself, who was a professed Platonist, who replaced the literal meaning of the Scriptures with allegories, that decided to give "his god" the name "Lucifer".

AND THIS DECEPTION HAS BEEN ACCEPTED BY THE WHOLE WORLD!

The deception today is as follows:

In 2 Peter 1:19, where the name "Lucifer" SHOULD APPEAR FOR JESUS CHRIST, it is carefully hidden by every single major translation into the English language. But in Isaiah 14:12, where the name "Lucifer" SHOULD NEVER HAVE BEEN USED, it is used as a name for Satan ... due to the Catholic scholars Origen and Jerome.

Let's now examine the Hebrew word "heylel", which is used to refer to Satan in Isaiah 14:12.

THE HEBREW WORD "HEYLEL"

The word "heylel" is used only once in the O.T., here in Isaiah 14:12. Thus by itself this word does not give us much insight into its meaning. But "Heylel" is derived from the primitive root verb "HALAL".

It is this verb "halal" that gives us understanding of what "heylel" really means. By examining how this root verb "halal" is used in the Bible, we can see the meanings God has attached to this word. Understanding the word "halal" will show what the noun "heylel", that is formed from "halal", is supposed to mean.

To illustrate this in English:

- In order to understand the noun "driver", we first have to understand what the verb "to drive" means, since "a driver" is someone who drives.

- In order to understand the noun "actor", we first have to understand what the verb "to act" means, since "an actor" is someone who acts.

- In order to understand the noun "hunter", we first have to understand what the verb "to hunt" means, since "a hunter" is someone who hunts. etc.

Similarly, in Hebrew:

In order to understand the noun "heylel", we first have to understand what the verb "halal" means, since the individual called "heylel" will be engaged in the actions described by the verb "halal".

So here is how the verb "halal" is used in the Old Testament.

"HALAL" is used 165 times in the Old Testament and it is translated as follows in the KJV:

117 x = Praise 14 x = Glory 10x = Boast

8 x = Mad 3 x = Shine(d) 3x = Foolish

2 x = Fools 2 x = Commended 2x = Rage

1 x = Celebrate 1 x = Give 1x = Marriage

1 x = Renowned

This should make clear that the translators felt they should attach over a dozen different meanings to this word "Halal". As we can see, the meanings are both, good and bad; both, positive and negative.

There is no question that this word has a good, positive meaning. But neither is there any question that it ALSO has a bad, negative meaning. It really depends on WHO this verb is speaking about! It is THE CONTEXT that will always make plain whether a positive meaning or a negative meaning should be attached to "halal".

Let's examine some of the places where "halal" is used with a negative meaning:

And he (i.e. David) changed his behaviour before them, and FEIGNED HIMSELF MAD (halal) in their hands, and scrabbled on the doors of the gate, and let his spittle fall down upon his beard. (1 Samuel 21:13)

My enemies reproach me all the day; and they that ARE MAD AGAINST ME (halal) are sworn against me. (Psalm 102:8)

I said of laughter, IT IS MAD (halal), and of mirth, What does it? (Ecclesiastes 2:2)

Surely oppression MAKES a wise man MAD (halal); and a gift destroys the heart. (Ecclesiastes 7:7)

That frustrates the tokens of the liars, and MAKES diviners MAD (halal); that turns wise men backward, and makes their knowledge foolish. (Isaiah 44:25)

He leads counsellors away spoiled, and MAKES the judges FOOLS (halal). (Job 12:17)

I said UNTO THE FOOLS (halal), DEAL not FOOLISHLY (halal): and to the wicked, Lift not up the horn. (Psalm 75:4)

THE FOOLISH (halal) shall not stand in your sight; you hate all workers of iniquity. (Psalm 5:5)

For I was envious AT THE FOOLISH (halal), when I saw the prosperity of the wicked. (Psalm 73:3)

Come up, you horses; AND RAGE (halal) you chariots; and let the mighty men come forth ... (Jeremiah 46:9)

The chariots SHALL RAGE (halal) in the streets, they shall justle one against another in the broad ways ... (Nahum 2:4)

And the king of Israel answered and said, Tell him, Let not him that girds on his harness BOAST HIMSELF (halal) as he that puts it off (meaning: don't brag about something before doing it AS IF you had already done it). (1 Kings 20:11)

For the wicked BOASTS (halal) of his heart's desire, and blesses the covetous, whom the LORD abhorreth. (Psalm 10:3)

In God WE BOAST (halal) all the day long, and praise your name for ever. Selah (Psalm 44:8)

They that trust in their wealth, AND BOAST THEMSELVES (halal) in the multitude of their riches. (Psalm 49:6)

Why DO YOU BOAST YOURSELF (halal) in mischief, O mighty man? ... (Psalm 52:1)

Confounded be all they that serve graven images, that BOAST THEMSELVES (halal) of idols: worship him all ye gods. (Psalm 97:7)

It is naught, it is naught, says the buyer: but when he is gone his way, THEN HE BOASTS (halal). (Proverbs 20:14)

Whoso BOASTS HIMSELF (halal) of a false gift is like clouds and wind without rain. (Proverbs 25:14)

BOAST NOT YOURSELF (halal) of the morrow; for you know not what a day may bring forth. (Proverbs 27:1)

While there is no question that this Hebrew verb "halal" also has good and positive meanings, I have now shown you about 20 different verses in which this verb is very CLEARLY used with A NEGATIVE MEANING. The context of these twenty verses shows that the verb "halal" DOES indeed also convey the meanings of: FOOLISH, MAD, BOASTING, ARROGANCE and CONCEIT!

Therefore it follows:

When there is in one single passage A NOUN formed from this verb, we cannot automatically assume that the meaning has to be either positive or negative. It is only THE CONTEXT that will give us today a clue as to what meaning GOD intended to convey to us.

When we read the English noun "driver", it is only the context that makes clear whether we mean "the driver of a car", or "the #1 wood club" in a set of golf clubs, or "a computer file" to enable a specific piece of computer hardware to function correctly. The same is true for the Hebrew noun "heylel" ... the context is the key to the meaning of this word.

So let's now examine the context in question.

THE CONTEXT OF ISAIAH 14:12

Let's notice the context of this passage in Isaiah chapter 14.

Isaiah 14:9: The grave is moved to meet you ...

Isaiah 14:10: They all say: are you also become weak as we? ...

Isaiah 14:11: YOUR POMP is brought down to the grave ...

Isaiah 14:12:

"HOW ARE YOU FALLEN FROM HEAVEN, HEYLEL, son of (i.e. product or creation of) the morning (i.e. Jesus Christ, the morning star, created you)! How are you cut down to the ground, which didst weaken the nations!

Isaiah 14:13:

"FOR YOU HAVE SAID IN YOUR HEART (you conceited arrogant fool!), I WILL ASCEND INTO HEAVEN, I WILL EXALT MY THRONE ABOVE THE STARS OF GOD (the ultimate in boasting and in arrogant conceit): I WILL SIT ALSO UPON THE MOUNT OF THE CONGREGATION, IN THE SIDES OF THE NORTH (the greatest megalomaniac of all time):"

Isaiah 14:14:

"I WILL ASCEND ABOVE THE HEIGHTS OF THE CLOUDS; I WILL BE LIKE THE MOST HIGH (utter arrogance)."

Isaiah 14:15:

"Yet you shall be brought down to hell (you arrogant, vain and conceited boaster!), to the sides of the pit."

So what is the context of the word "heylel" in Isaiah 14:12?

The context is one of:

- Satan being punished

- Satan falling from heaven

- Satan surrounding himself with "pomp"

- Satan wanting to exalt himself

- Satan wanting to be like God

- Satan having been created by Jesus Christ

- Satan making incredibly boastful statements.

THERE IS NOT THE SLIGHTEST HINT IN THIS CONTEXT THAT SATAN AT ANY TIME EVER WAS "A LIGHT BRINGER"! NOTHING GOOD IS SAID ABOUT SATAN IN THE ENTIRE CONTEXT!

Consider the following:

2 Peter 1:19 makes clear that "Phosphoros" is one of the titles of Jesus Christ. Here in Isaiah 14:12 Satan is shown as wanting to be OVER Jesus Christ. In such a context does it really make sense to assume that God addresses Satan with one of the titles THAT BELONGS TO JESUS CHRIST (i.e. "Phosphoros" in Origen's LXX and "Lucifer" in Jerome's subsequent Latin Vulgate translation)?

The noun "heylel" has nothing to do with "CARRYING" anything! Nor does it have anything to do with either "day" or with "star" (the marginal reading in the KJV reads "O day star", which also is a title for Jesus Christ!). So even IF "heylel" was intended by God to have a positive meaning in this context, it STILL would not give it the meaning of "LIGHT BRINGER" (which is what "Lucifer" means).

How do you think the great Eternal God will speak about anyone who tries to overthrow Him ... with courtesy and respect and consideration for the rebel's sincerity in really wanting to overthrow God ... or with contempt and derision?

Psalm 2 tells us:

"HE THAT SITS IN THE HEAVENS SHALL LAUGH, THE LORD SHALL HAVE THEM IN DERISION" (Psalm 2:4)

Psalm 2:4 tells us PRECISELY what God is doing in Isaiah 14:12!

Notice also a principle God shows us in the Book of Ezekiel.

"When a righteous man does turn from his righteousness and commits iniquity ... his righteousness which he has done SHALL NOT BE REMEMBERED ..." (Ezekiel 3:20)

"But when the righteous turns away from his righteousness and commits iniquity ... ALL HIS RIGHTEOUSNESS THAT HE HAS DONE SHALL NOT BE MENTIONED ..." (Ezekiel 18:24)

"When I shall say to the righteous that he shall surely live; if he trust in his own righteousness, and commit iniquity, ALL HIS RIGHTEOUSNESS SHALL NOT BE REMEMBERED ..." (Ezekiel 33:13)

It should be clear that after Satan had turned to rebellion, God would NEVER again mention any good that he (Satan) may have done before he rebelled. God would neither mention it, nor even remember it ... that's what these verses in the Book of Ezekiel tell us. So even on this count the high title of "Light bringer" is out of the question.

It should really be obvious that in the context of Isaiah chapter 14 God is not about to ascribe one of the titles of Jesus Christ to Satan! The correct translation of Isaiah 14:12 without doubt has to be along the following lines:

"HOW ARE YOU FALLEN FROM HEAVEN, YOU ARROGANT, CONCEITED AND BOASTFUL FOOL, son of the morning (star), how are you cut down to the ground, which didst weaken the nations!" (Isaiah 14:12)

Even the grammatical construction of this verse in Hebrew anticipates the noun "heylel" to have a negative meaning. This is because in Hebrew poetry a subsequent phrase usually mirrors the sentiments of the preceding phrase. Thus the parallel thoughts are as follows:

1) HOW ARE YOU FALLEN FROM HEAVEN, followed by:

HOW ARE YOU CUT DOWN TO THE GROUND

2) YOU ARROGANT AND CONCEITED FOOL (HEYLEL), followed by:

YOU WHO DID WEAKEN THE NATIONS.

It doesn't really fit into the train of thought to replace the second point with:

2) YOU BRIGHT LIGHTBRINGER (LUCIFER), followed by:

YOU WHO DID WEAKEN THE NATIONS.

Satan's fall from heaven and cutting down to the ground occurred a long time before there ever were any "nations" for him to influence one way or the other. And at no stage has Satan EVER been "a light bringer" to any nation! The Book of Genesis shows that right from the very start of human existence Satan has been the adversary, the enemy. Satan has NEVER brought "light" (i.e. truth) to anybody at any time ... he simply did NOT abide in the truth and THERE IS NO TRUTH IN HIM ... FROM THE BEGINNING (see John 8:44)!

WHO DOES THE BIBLE SAY IS "THE LIGHT BRINGER"?

It is not as if 2 Peter 1:19 is an isolated reference in the New Testament about Jesus Christ being the One who brings light.

For example:

"In him was life; and the life was THE LIGHT OF MEN" (John 1:4)

"The same came for a witness, to bear witness of THE LIGHT, that all men through him might believe" (John 1:7)

"He was not that Light, but was sent to bear witness of THAT LIGHT." (John 1:8)

"And this is the condemnation, THAT LIGHT IS COME INTO THE WORLD, and men loved darkness rather than light ..." (John 3:19)

"Then spoke Jesus again unto them saying, I AM THE LIGHT OF THE WORLD ... shall have THE LIGHT OF LIFE." (John 8:12)

"While you have light, BELIEVE IN THE LIGHT, that you may be THE CHILDREN OF LIGHT ..." (John 12:36)

What all of these Scriptures are saying is that Jesus Christ is LUCIFER (in Latin) or PHOSPHOROS (in Greek) or THE LIGHTBRINGER (in English).

For nearly 2000 years Satan has deceived the whole world into believing that at one point in time HE, THE ARROGANT FOOL WHO WANTED TO KNOCK GOD OFF HIS THRONE, USED TO BE "LUCIFER", THE LIGHT BRINGER! That deception has now been irrefutably exposed.

If you have read this whole article, then you have the evidence for exactly how Satan has attempted to "TRANSFORM HIMSELF into Lucifer, an angel or messenger bringing light" (see again 2 Corinthians 11:14).

You and I are told very plainly by God:

"YOU SHALL NOT TAKE THE NAME OF THE LORD YOUR GOD IN VAIN; FOR THE LORD WILL NOT HOLD HIM GUILTLESS THAT TAKES HIS NAME IN VAIN" (Exodus 20:7)

In 2 Peter 1:19 it is made quite clear that "Lucifer" (or any translation of it into any other language) is a name that belongs to God (i.e. to Jesus Christ). To ascribe this name as having been Satan's name at one point certainly amounts to taking one of God's names in vain! Therefore if you, after reading this whole article, continue to state that "Lucifer" USED TO BE Satan's name, then you will be guilty of blasphemy, and God will not hold you guiltless.

This is no mere "technical point"!

Satan has deceived the whole world about his own identity. He has usurped a title that has ALWAYS belonged to Jesus Christ. But YOU are now no longer deceived. You have been shown the truth.

In future I will not argue with anyone about Satan at one time supposedly having had the name "Lucifer". If anyone chooses to continue to refer to Satan supposedly having been called "Lucifer", then THEIR BLASPHEMY is upon their own heads. I have explained the truth and thereby absolved my responsibility. If you hear other people referring to Satan as "Lucifer", then give them a copy of this article.

Frank W. Nelte